bada bing bada booom
Let be the price curve of an asset over time, and suppose we want to create a financial instrument that offers returns twice that of . Precisely, we want our price curve to be
(why the factor of ? it will make some later equations easier to read)
Can we achieve this? If is differentiable, the answer is yes. Let be the price curve of our fund. We set our position to so that
which we can solve to get the desired return profile.
What if is not differentiable, but rather a Wiener process? We cannot differentiate with respect to time, so instead we look at how must change with little changes in . If we write as , we get
We can set our position to to achieve the left term, but what about the term on the right? In fact . So, in order to achieve the right term our fund must increase in price by every . Assuming we cannot print money, we must instead allow our 2x leveraged fund to have the return profile
(why can we ignore the noise component ? what is the variance in the accumulated noise?)